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                          EASTER QUESTION

1) The Greek word translated "Easter" in Acts 12:4, in the KJV
   (AV), is the word "pascha." This word is rendered "passover"
   in 28 of 29 times the word appears in the N.T.

2) Was Herod referring to Passover or Easter in Acts 12:4?

3) We know that Easter was a pagan holiday and not of Christian

4) There is an argument (those that claim the KJV is the actual
   word of God rather than a translation of it) for this word to
   be correctly rendered "Easter."

5) The argument:
   a) Acts 12:3 "(Then were the days of unleavened bread.)"
   b) Passover was observed on the 14th day of Abid (April) then
      came the feast of unleavened bread (Ex 12:13-18; Nu 28:16-
      18). On the 14th of April the lamb was killed. This is the
      passover. No event following the 14th is ever referred to
      as the passover.
   c) Verse 3 shows that Peter was arrested during the days of
      unleavened bread (April 15-21). The passover had already
      come and gone, but the pagan holiday of Easter (being later
      in the same month) was just a few days from the then.
   d) Herod was a pagan Roman who worshiped the "queen of heaven"
      therefore Herod would be observing the pagan Easter.

6) The problem with the argument:
  a) The Compact Bible Dictionary list seven feast days.
     The first was Passover OR Feast of Unleavened Bread, which
     shows that Passover and the Feast of Unleavened Bread were
     considered as one feast. But this is man's dictionary, so
     does the Bible give any indication of the same?
       1) Consider these verses:
          Mt 26:17 Now the first [day] of the [feast of]
            unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying
            unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to
            eat the passover?
              a) According to the argument presented above, Jesus
                 was a little late in wanting to eat the
                 Passover, for it was the first day of the feast
                 of unleavened bread, which means (according to
                 the argument) that Passover had already come and
                 gone. Perhaps Jesus was going with Herod to the
                 Easter festival. We know that is not true.

       2) Lu 2:41  Now his parents went to Jerusalem every year
            at the feast of the passover. 42  And when he was
            twelve years old, they went up to Jerusalem after the
            custom of the feast. 43  And when they had fulfilled
            the days, as they returned, the child Jesus tarried
            behind in Jerusalem; and Joseph and his mother knew
            not [of it].
              a) What feast is in view here? Passover (vs. 41)
              b) What feast is in view in verse 42, "custom" of
                 what feast? Passover (vs. 41)
              c) Notice verse 43 says, "when they had fulfilled
                 the DAYS." The word days is plural. Fulfilled
                 what days? Passover.

       3) Lu 22:1 Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh,
            which is called the Passover.
              1) This verse says that the feast of unleavened
                 bread is called the PASSOVER!
              2) In the argument for, the gentleman made this
                 statement, "No event following the 14th is ever
                 referred to as the passover." He was referring
                 to the "feast of unleavened bread." This verse
                 is proof positive of the error of that

       4) Lu 22:7  Then came the day of unleavened bread, when
            the passover must be killed. 8  And he sent Peter and
            John, saying, Go and prepare us the passover, that we
            may eat.
              a) BUT it's the day of unleavened bread, which
                 Passover was.

       5) Eze 45:21 In the first [month], in the fourteenth day
            of the month, ye shall have the passover, a feast of
            seven days; unleavened bread shall be eaten.

  b) Another problem with the argument is that the Greek word
     means "Passover." Are we to believe that the textus receptus
     had more error than the translation? Did Luke really use the
     word "pascha," and if he did were the KJV translators more
     inspired than Luke?