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EASTER QUESTION --------------- 1) The Greek word translated "Easter" in Acts 12:4, in the KJV (AV), is the word "pascha." This word is rendered "passover" in 28 of 29 times the word appears in the N.T. 2) Was Herod referring to Passover or Easter in Acts 12:4? 3) We know that Easter was a pagan holiday and not of Christian origin. 4) There is an argument (those that claim the KJV is the actual word of God rather than a translation of it) for this word to be correctly rendered "Easter." 5) The argument: a) Acts 12:3 "(Then were the days of unleavened bread.)" b) Passover was observed on the 14th day of Abid (April) then came the feast of unleavened bread (Ex 12:13-18; Nu 28:16- 18). On the 14th of April the lamb was killed. This is the passover. No event following the 14th is ever referred to as the passover. c) Verse 3 shows that Peter was arrested during the days of unleavened bread (April 15-21). The passover had already come and gone, but the pagan holiday of Easter (being later in the same month) was just a few days from the then. d) Herod was a pagan Roman who worshiped the "queen of heaven" therefore Herod would be observing the pagan Easter. 6) The problem with the argument: a) The Compact Bible Dictionary list seven feast days. The first was Passover OR Feast of Unleavened Bread, which shows that Passover and the Feast of Unleavened Bread were considered as one feast. But this is man's dictionary, so does the Bible give any indication of the same? 1) Consider these verses: Mt 26:17 Now the first [day] of the [feast of] unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover? a) According to the argument presented above, Jesus was a little late in wanting to eat the Passover, for it was the first day of the feast of unleavened bread, which means (according to the argument) that Passover had already come and gone. Perhaps Jesus was going with Herod to the Easter festival. We know that is not true. 2) Lu 2:41 Now his parents went to Jerusalem every year at the feast of the passover. 42 And when he was twelve years old, they went up to Jerusalem after the custom of the feast. 43 And when they had fulfilled the days, as they returned, the child Jesus tarried behind in Jerusalem; and Joseph and his mother knew not [of it]. a) What feast is in view here? Passover (vs. 41) b) What feast is in view in verse 42, "custom" of what feast? Passover (vs. 41) c) Notice verse 43 says, "when they had fulfilled the DAYS." The word days is plural. Fulfilled what days? Passover. 3) Lu 22:1 Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover. 1) This verse says that the feast of unleavened bread is called the PASSOVER! 2) In the argument for, the gentleman made this statement, "No event following the 14th is ever referred to as the passover." He was referring to the "feast of unleavened bread." This verse is proof positive of the error of that statement. 4) Lu 22:7 Then came the day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed. 8 And he sent Peter and John, saying, Go and prepare us the passover, that we may eat. a) BUT it's the day of unleavened bread, which Passover was. 5) Eze 45:21 In the first [month], in the fourteenth day of the month, ye shall have the passover, a feast of seven days; unleavened bread shall be eaten. b) Another problem with the argument is that the Greek word means "Passover." Are we to believe that the textus receptus had more error than the translation? Did Luke really use the word "pascha," and if he did were the KJV translators more inspired than Luke?